Cisco - CCNA 1 Version 6.0 Answer - ALL CHAPTER

 Cisco - CCNA 1 version 6.0 Answer

CHAPTER 1

CHAPTER 2

CHAPTER 3

CHAPTER 4

CHAPTER 5

CHAPTER 6

CHAPTER 7

CHAPTER 8

CHAPTER 9

CHAPTER 10

CHAPTER 11

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Cisco - CCNA 1 Exam Answers - CHAPTER 11 V 6.0

Cisco - CCNA 1 Exam Answers - CHAPTER 11

1. • A newly hired network technician is given the task of ordering new hardware for a small business with a large growth forecast. Which primary factor should the technician be concerned with when choosing the new devices?

     • devices with a fixed number and type of interfaces
     • devices that have support for network monitoring
     • redundant devices
     • devices with support for modularity

   • Which network design consideration would be more important to a large corporation than to a small business?

     • Internet router
     • firewall
     • low port density switch
     • redundancy

   • Which two traffic types require delay sensitive delivery? (Choose two.)

     • email
     • web
     • FTP
     • voice
     • video

   • A network administrator for a small company is contemplating how to scale the network over the next three years to accommodate projected growth. Which three types of information should be used to plan for network growth? (Choose three.)

     • human resource policies and procedures for all employees in the company
     • documentation of the current physical and logical topologies
     • analysis of the network traffic based on protocols, applications, and services used on the network
     • history and mission statement of the company
     • inventory of the devices that are currently used on the network
     • listing of the current employees and their role in the company

   • Which two statements describe how to assess traffic flow patterns and network traffic types using a protocol analyzer? (Choose two.)

     • Capture traffic on the weekends when most employees are off work.
     • Only capture traffic in the areas of the network that receive most of the traffic such as the data center.
     • Capture traffic during peak utilization times to get a good representation of the different traffic types.
     • Perform the capture on different network segments.
     • Only capture WAN traffic because traffic to the web is responsible for the largest amount of traffic on a network.

   • Some routers and switches in a wiring closet malfunctioned after an air conditioning unit failed. What type of threat does this situation describe?

     • configuration
     • environmental
     • electrical
     • maintenance

   • Which type of network threat is intended to prevent authorized users from accessing resources?

     • DoS attacks
     • access attacks
     • reconnaissance attacks
     • trust exploitation

   • Which two actions can be taken to prevent a successful network attack on an email server account? (Choose two.)

     • Never send the password through the network in a clear text.
     • Never use passwords that need the Shift key.
     • Use servers from different vendors.
     • Distribute servers throughout the building, placing them close to the stakeholders.
     • Limit the number of unsuccessful attempts to log in to the server.

   • Which firewall feature is used to ensure that packets coming into a network are legitimate responses initiated from internal hosts?

     • application filtering
     • stateful packet inspection
     • URL filtering
     • packet filtering

   • What is the purpose of the network security authentication function?

     • to require users to prove who they are
     • to determine which resources a user can access
     • to keep track of the actions of a user
     • to provide challenge and response questions

   • A network administrator is issuing the login block-for 180 attempts 2 within 30 command on a router. Which threat is the network administrator trying to prevent?

     • a user who is trying to guess a password to access the router
     • a worm that is attempting to access another part of the network
     • an unidentified individual who is trying to access the network equipment room
     • a device that is trying to inspect the traffic on a link

   • What is the purpose of using SSH to connect to a router?

     • It allows a router to be configured using a graphical interface.
     • It allows a secure remote connection to the router command line interface.
     • It allows the router to be monitored through a network management application.
     • It allows secure transfer of the IOS software image from an unsecure workstation or server.

   • Which two steps are required before SSH can be enabled on a Cisco router? (Choose two.)

     • Give the router a host name and domain name.
     • Create a banner that will be displayed to users when they connect.
     • Generate a set of secret keys to be used for encryption and decryption.
     • Set up an authentication server to handle incoming connection requests.
     • Enable SSH on the physical interfaces where the incoming connection requests will be received.

   • What is the purpose of issuing the commands cd nvram: then dir at the privilege exec mode of a router?

     • to clear the content of the NVRAM
     • to direct all new files to the NVRAM
     • to list the content of the NVRAM
     • to copy the directories from the NVRAM

   • Which command will backup the configuration that is stored in NVRAM to a TFTP server?

     • copy running-config tftp
     • copy tftp running-config
     • copy startup-config tftp
     • copy tftp startup-config

   • Refer to the exhibit. Baseline documentation for a small company had ping round trip time statistics of 36/97/132 between hosts H1 and H3. Today the network administrator checked connectivity by pinging between hosts H1 and H3 that resulted in a round trip time of 1458/2390/6066. What does this indicate to the network administrator?

     
     

     
     
     • Connectivity between H1 and H3 is fine.
     • H3 is not connected properly to the network.
     • Something is causing interference between H1 and R1.
     • Performance between the networks is within expected parameters.
     • Something is causing a time delay between the networks.
     • 
       

   • When should an administrator establish a network baseline?

     • when the traffic is at peak in the network
     • when there is a sudden drop in traffic
     • at the lowest point of traffic in the network
     • at regular intervals over a period of time

   • Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to troubleshoot connectivity between PC1 and PC2 and uses the tracert command from PC1 to do it. Based on the displayed output, where should the administrator begin troubleshooting?

     
     

     
     
     • PC2
     • R1
     • SW2
     • R2
     • SW1

   • Which statement is true about CDP on a Cisco device?

     • The show cdp neighbor detail command will reveal the IP address of a neighbor only if there is Layer 3 connectivity.
     • To disable CDP globally, the no cdp enable command in interface configuration mode must be used.
     • CDP can be disabled globally or on a specific interface.
     • Because it runs at the data link layer, the CDP protocol can only be implemented in switches.

   • A network administrator for a small campus network has issued the show ip interface brief command on a switch. What is the administrator verifying with this command?

     • the status of the switch interfaces and the address configured on interface vlan 1
     • that a specific host on another network can be reached
     • the path that is used to reach a specific host on another network
     • the default gateway that is used by the switch

   • A network technician issues the arp -d * command on a PC after the router that is connected to the LAN is reconfigured. What is the result after this command is issued?

     • The ARP cache is cleared.
     • The current content of the ARP cache is displayed.
     • The detailed information of the ARP cache is displayed.
     • The ARP cache is synchronized with the router interface.

   • A network technician issues the C:\> tracert -6 www.cisco.com command on a Windows PC. What is the purpose of the -6 command option?

     • It forces the trace to use IPv6.
     • It limits the trace to only 6 hops.
     • It sets a 6 milliseconds timeout for each replay.
     • It sends 6 probes within each TTL time period.

   • Which command should be used on a Cisco router or switch to allow log messages to be displayed on remotely connected sessions using Telnet or SSH?

     • debug all
     • logging synchronous
     • show running-config​
     • terminal monitor

   • Fill in the blank.
     VoIP                  defines the protocols and technologies that implement the transmission of voice data over an IP network

   • Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.

     The show  file systems      command provides information about the amount of free nvram and flash memory with the permissions for reading or writing data.

   • Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.

     The   show version    command that is issued on a router is used to verify the value of the software configuration register.

   • Match the type of information security threat to the scenario. (Not all options are used.)

     • Question
       
       

       
       
     • Answer
       

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Cisco - CCNA 1 Exam Answers - CHAPTER 10 V 6.0

Cisco - CCNA 1 Exam Answers - CHAPTER 10

1. Which two definitions accurately describe the associated application layer protocol? (Choose two.)

2. • SMTP – transfers web pages from web servers to clients
   • Telnet – provides remote access to servers and networking devices
   • DNS – resolves Internet names to IP addresses
   • FTP – transfers email messages and attachments
   • HTTP – enables devices on a network to obtain IP addresses

3. The application layer of the TCP/IP model performs the functions of what three layers of the OSI model? (Choose three.)

   • physical
   • session
   • network
   • presentation
   • data link
   • transport
   • application

4. Which layer in the TCP/IP model is used for formatting, compressing, and encrypting data?

   • internetwork
   • session
   • presentation
   • application
   • network access

5. What are two characteristics of the application layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose two.)

   • responsibility for logical addressing
   • responsibility for physical addressing
   • the creation and maintenance of dialogue between source and destination applications
   • closest to the end user
   • the establishing of window size

6. A manufacturing company subscribes to certain hosted services from its ISP. The services that are required include hosted world wide web, file transfer, and e-mail. Which protocols represent these three key applications? (Choose three.)

   • FTP
   • HTTP
   • DNS
   • SNMP
   • DHCP
   • SMTP

7. What is an example of network communication that uses the client-server model?

   • A user uses eMule to download a file that is shared by a friend after the file location is determined.
   • A workstation initiates an ARP to find the MAC address of a receiving host.
   • A user prints a document by using a printer that is attached to a workstation of a coworker.
   • A workstation initiates a DNS request when the user types www.cisco.com in the address bar of a web browser.

8. Two students are working on a network design project. One student is doing the drawing, while the other student is writing the proposal. The drawing is finished and the student wants to share the folder that contains the drawing so that the other student can access the file and copy it to a USB drive. Which networking model is being used?

   • peer-to-peer
   • client-based
   • master-slave
   • point-to-point

9. What do the client/server and peer-to-peer network models have in common?

   • Both models have dedicated servers.
   • Both models support devices in server and client roles.
   • Both models require the use of TCP/IP-based protocols.
   • Both models are used only in the wired network environment.

10. What is an advantage for small organizations of adopting IMAP instead of POP?

    • Messages are kept in the mail servers until they are manually deleted from the email client.
    • When the user connects to a POP server, copies of the messages are kept in the mail server for a short time, but IMAP keeps them for a long time.
    • IMAP sends and retrieves email, but POP only retrieves email.
    • POP only allows the client to store messages in a centralized way, while IMAP allows distributed storage.

11. Which application layer protocol uses message types such as GET, PUT, and POST?

    • DNS
    • DHCP
    • SMTP
    • HTTP
    • POP3

12. When retrieving email messages, which protocol allows for easy, centralized storage and backup of emails that would be desirable for a small- to medium-sized business?

    • IMAP
    • POP
    • SMTP
    • HTTPS

13. Which three statements describe a DHCP Discover message? (Choose three.)

    • The source MAC address is 48 ones (FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF).
    • The destination IP address is 255.255.255.255.
    • The message comes from a server offering an IP address.
    • The message comes from a client seeking an IP address.
    • All hosts receive the message, but only a DHCP server replies.
    • Only the DHCP server receives the message.

14. What part of the URL, http://www.cisco.com/index.html, represents the top-level DNS domain?

    • .com
    • www
    • http
    • index

15. Which two tasks can be performed by a local DNS server? (Choose two.)

    • providing IP addresses to local hosts
    • allowing data transfer between two network devices
    • mapping name-to-IP addresses for internal hosts
    • forwarding name resolution requests between servers
    • retrieving email messages

16. Which phrase describes an FTP daemon?

    • a diagnostic FTP program
    • a program that is running on an FTP server
    • a program that is running on an FTP client
    • an application that is used to request data from an FTP server

17. Which statement is true about FTP?

    • The client can choose if FTP is going to establish one or two connections with the server.
    • The client can download data from or upload data to the server.
    • FTP is a peer-to-peer application.
    • FTP does not provide reliability during data transmission.

18. What is true about the Server Message Block protocol?

    • Different SMB message types have a different format.
    • Clients establish a long term connection to servers.
    • SMB messages cannot authenticate a session.
    • SMB uses the FTP protocol for communication.

19. Which application layer protocol is used to provide file-sharing and print services to Microsoft applications?

    • HTTP
    • SMTP
    • DHCP
    • SMB

20. Fill in the blank.

    What is the acronym for the protocol that is used when securely communicating with a web server? HTTPS

21. Fill in the blank.
    The HTTP message type used by the client to request data from the web server is the   GET     message.

22. Fill in the blank.
    Refer to the exhibit. What command was used to resolve a given host name by querying the name servers?

    
    

    
    

     NSLOOKUP 

23. Match a statement to the related network model. (Not all options are used.)

    • Question
      
      

      
      
    • Answer
      
      

      
      

24. Match the function to the name of the application. (Not all options are used.)

    • Question
      
      

      
      
    • Answer
      
      

      
      

25. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.

    Which PC or PCs are sending FTP packets to the server?

    • PC_3
    • PC_1
    • PC_2
    • PC_1 and PC_3

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